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If I give you 100G of iron at 10% bioavailabilty , and Tom 10G at 100% absorption, who absorbed more iron?

If you insist on reading the statement as "this burger has non-heme iron at quantities comparable to heme iron in meat that will also be just as bio-available" then yes, it's impossible.

However, I was trying to point out that there are several ways of reading that statement without it being marketing doublespeak.

TL;dr- I think we're arguing different points here.



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